Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Do you even realise that NASA could've hid or bury every single piece of evidence for a flat-earth and exaggerate their evidence? Have you ever question materialist scientific narratives?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

How would you feel about your husband allowing a mutual friend to see you naked and exposed to show off your pussy?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Does any unofficial Roman Catholic card exist in the world to play? In Italy, Rome & the Vatican City, can practising Catholics get any discounts as a tourist, & / or privileged admission to certain sights, with different rules for non Catholics?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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